The CompTIA A+ is the most recognized entry-level IT certification in the world. It covers hardware, networking, operating systems, security, and troubleshooting across two separate exams: Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102). Both must be passed to earn the A+ credential. Download the official CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives for complete domain coverage.
A+ Practice Quiz
1. A field tech receives the trouble ticket below. The internal panel still shows a faint, readable image at maximum brightness, while an external HDMI monitor displays at full brightness with no issues. Based on the symptoms, which component is the MOST likely root cause?
Right answer (B): That's correct! A faint but visible image with full brightness set indicates the panel is rendering pixels correctly, but the backlight/inverter is failing to illuminate them.
Wrong answers:
- A): A failing LCD panel produces dead pixels, color bands, or distortion, not uniform dimness.
- C): The GPU is confirmed working because the external monitor displays correctly at native resolution.
- D): A faulty LVDS/eDP cable typically causes flickering, artifacts, or no image, not consistent dimness across the entire panel.
2. A technician is building a workstation with a motherboard that supports DDR5 only. Using the comparison spreadsheet below, which combination of physical and electrical traits CORRECTLY distinguishes a DDR5 DIMM from a DDR4 DIMM and explains why they are not interchangeable in the same slot?
Right answer (C): That's correct! DDR5 keeps 288 pins but moves the keying notch and adds an on-DIMM power management IC at 1.1 V, preventing insertion into DDR4 slots.
Wrong answers:
- A): 240 pins and 1.5 V describe DDR3, not DDR5.
- B): DDR5 is the same physical length as DDR4 and adds a PMIC, not removes one.
- D): Notch position, voltage, and on-DIMM regulation all differ between DDR4 and DDR5, so they are not interchangeable.
3. A technician needs to uplink two modern gigabit switches that ship with both ends of the same Cat6 patch cable wired to T568B (a straight-through). Referring to the pinout diagram shown below, which switch feature most reliably eliminates the need to re-terminate one end as a crossover?
Right answer (D): That's correct! Auto-MDIX detects the link partner and electronically swaps TX/RX pairs, so a T568B straight-through works between switches.
Wrong answers:
- A): A plain Cat5 straight-through without Auto-MDIX would not link two switches reliably.
- B): Coaxial RG-6 carries cable TV/broadband signals, not Ethernet between switches.
- C): A Cat5e crossover would work, but the question asks what eliminates the NEED for a crossover, not what is one.
4. A wireless engineer reviews the standards comparison spreadsheet below while planning an enterprise refresh. The customer specifically requires a standard that operates exclusively in the 5 GHz band (no 2.4 GHz fallback) and reaches up to 6.9 Gbps with 8x8 MU-MIMO and 160 MHz channels. Which standard meets BOTH conditions?
Right answer (B): That's correct! 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) is the only standard listed that is exclusive to 5 GHz and reaches 6.9 Gbps.
Wrong answers:
- A): 802.11n is dual-band (2.4 + 5 GHz) and tops out at 600 Mbps.
- C): 802.11ax operates on 2.4, 5, and 6 GHz, so it is not exclusive to 5 GHz.
- D): 802.11g is 2.4 GHz only and limited to 54 Mbps.
5. Five regional hospitals in the same state want to pool resources to run a shared electronic health records platform. They all share the same HIPAA compliance obligations and want to split infrastructure costs but cannot use a fully open public cloud. Based on the deployment models table below, which deployment model fits BEST?
Right answer (C): That's correct! A community cloud is shared by organizations with common compliance needs, exactly matching multiple hospitals sharing HIPAA obligations.
Wrong answers:
- A): A public cloud is open to all tenants and does not provide an industry-specific compliance boundary by design.
- B): A private cloud is dedicated to one org and loses the cost-sharing benefit across the five hospitals.
- D): Hybrid mixes public + private but does not by itself address shared compliance across multiple organizations.
6. A technician boots a Windows 10 laptop and sees the POST output shown below, then loads WinRE from a recovery USB. The drive shows up in diskpart and chkdsk reports no bad sectors. Which Recovery Environment command sequence should be run FIRST to repair the boot manager without destroying user data?
Right answer (B): That's correct! bootrec /fixmbr rewrites the Master Boot Record and bootrec /fixboot writes a new boot sector, directly addressing "BOOTMGR is missing".
Wrong answers:
- A): sfc /scannow repairs system files inside an installed OS but cannot fix a missing boot manager.
- C): chkdsk found no bad sectors, and it does not rebuild the boot manager.
- D): diskpart clean wipes the partition table and would cause complete data loss.
7. A help-desk technician receives the email shown below, forwarded by an end user. The sender domain is misspelled ("first-bnak-alerts.com"), the link points to the same lookalike domain, and the message uses urgency to drive the user to enter credentials on a fake login page. What category of social engineering attack does this BEST represent?
Right answer (A): That's correct! A deceptive email with a spoofed domain and a fake login link aimed at an ordinary user is classic phishing.
Wrong answers:
- B): Vishing is voice phishing over phone calls, not email.
- C): Smishing uses SMS text messages as the delivery vector, not email.
- D): Whaling specifically targets high-value executives like CEOs/CFOs, but this targets a regular customer.
8. A user complains their PC has been "crawling" since they installed a free PDF tool yesterday. The Task Manager output shown below shows an unfamiliar process running from the user's Temp folder consuming 95% CPU and pushing outbound network traffic. Following the CompTIA best-practice methodology, what is the BEST FIRST step?
Right answer (C): That's correct! An unknown executable running from AppData\Temp with high CPU and outbound traffic right after a software install is a textbook malware indicator, isolate and scan first.
Wrong answers:
- A): Reinstalling Windows is a last resort, not a first step.
- B): Upgrading the CPU is a hardware change for what is clearly a software problem.
- D): Increasing virtual memory addresses RAM exhaustion, not CPU consumption by a malicious process.
9. A user reports their monochrome laser printer is producing pages with sharp vertical black lines running the full length of every page in the same horizontal position. Using the symptom reference table below, which component is the MOST likely cause of the highlighted symptom?
Right answer (D): That's correct! A consistent vertical line on every page in the same spot is caused by a scratch, groove, or debris on the imaging drum depositing toner at that location each rotation.
Wrong answers:
- A): A failing fuser causes smudges or toner that rubs off, not crisp vertical lines.
- B): A bad transfer roller produces faded prints, not extra black lines.
- C): Pickup rollers cause paper-handling errors, not print-quality defects on the page.
10. A user reports their 14-month-old smartphone "dies in the middle of the day" even when they barely touch it. The Battery Health screen shown below shows the hardware is healthy at 92% but a recently installed weather app is responsible for 62% of usage in the background. Following the CompTIA 6-step troubleshooting model, what is the BEST FIRST corrective action?
Right answer (B): That's correct! The diagnostic data identifies the misbehaving app as the cause, so the least invasive fix (restrict background activity or uninstall) comes first.
Wrong answers:
- A): Battery health is reported as 92%, so replacing it skips the actual root cause.
- C): A factory reset wipes all user data and is a last-resort step, not a first action.
- D): Permanently disabling radios is impractical and does not address the rogue background app.
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Free A+ Flashcards
What is the difference between RAM and storage (HDD/SSD)?
Click to flipRAM is volatile (loses data when power is off) and provides fast, temporary working memory for the CPU. Storage (HDD/SSD) is non-volatile and holds data permanently. RAM speed is measured in MHz; storage speed in read/write MB/s or IOPS.
Frequently Asked Questions
The CompTIA A+ consists of two separate exams: Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102). Both must be passed to earn the A+ certification. You can take them in any order.
Core 1 (220-1101) requires a passing score of 675 on a 100-900 scale. Core 2 (220-1102) requires a slightly higher score of 700 on the same scale.
Each exam has a maximum of 90 questions, including both multiple-choice and performance-based questions (PBQs). You have 90 minutes per exam to complete all questions.
Yes, the A+ is valid for 3 years. You can renew by earning 20 Continuing Education Units (CEUs), passing a higher CompTIA certification, or retaking the current version of the exam.
The A+ is considered entry-level but not trivially easy. Most candidates with some IT experience or 2-3 months of focused study pass on the first attempt. The PBQs are the trickiest part for candidates who only studied from books without hands-on practice.
Each A+ exam voucher costs approximately $358 USD, so earning the full A+ certification (both exams) costs about $716 total. CompTIA offers bundle discounts and academic pricing that can reduce this cost significantly.
There are no mandatory prerequisites. CompTIA recommends 9-12 months of hands-on experience in an IT support role, but many candidates pass with self-study alone using practice tests, virtual labs, and hands-on home lab work.
A+ qualifies you for roles like help desk technician, desktop support specialist, IT support technician, field service technician, and junior systems administrator. Average starting salaries range from $40,000 to $55,000 depending on location.
Yes, both Core 1 and Core 2 include PBQs that simulate real-world scenarios. These may involve configuring network settings, troubleshooting hardware issues, or setting up operating system features in a simulated environment.
Most candidates take Core 1 first because it covers foundational hardware and networking concepts that help with Core 2's software and troubleshooting topics. However, you can take them in either order based on your strengths.
Yes, the A+ remains valuable as a baseline IT credential. It is required or preferred for many entry-level IT positions, is DoD 8140 approved, and provides a foundation for pursuing advanced certifications like Network+, Security+, and beyond.
CertLabz offers full-length A+ practice exams with 90+ questions per exam, hands-on virtual labs, PBQ simulations, detailed domain breakdowns with progress tracking, and flashcards. Plans start at just $10 per month.